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Note: Conversion is based on the latest values and formulas.
Is arctan(tan(𝝅/2)) = 𝝅/2 or = undefined ? : r/askmath - Reddit 20 Apr 2023 · I have a question regarding trigonometric functions that I would appreciate some insight on. Specifically, I am wondering whether arctan(tan(𝝅/2)) is equal to 𝝅/2 or undefined. I understand that tan(𝝅/2) is undefined, but I'm not sure how this affects the value of arctan(tan(𝝅/2)). On Desmos, the expression returns 𝝅/2 (1. ...
Most elegant proof of Arctan(x) + Arctan(1/x) - Physics Forums 13 Nov 2006 · Let f(x) = Arctan(x) + Arctan(1/x) We know the derivative of Arctan(x) = 1/(1+x^2).If you didnt already know that, tell me and ill post my proof. Anyway, using that derivative for arc tan, and letting u=1/x, then using the chain rule, we evenutally get my f(x)'s derivative is …
Taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) at infinity - Physics Forums 24 Jul 2023 · I have to write taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) around at x=+∞. My first idea was to set z=1/x and in this case z→0 Thus I can expand f(z)= arctan(1/z) near 0 so I obtain 1/z-1/3(z^3) Then I try to reverse the substitution but this is incorrect .I discovered after that...
Why arctan(n) goes to pi/2 as n goes infinite? - Physics Forums 12 Dec 2011 · I posted the picture of this question I am just wondering. Why does arctan(n) as n → ∞ go to ∏/2? How would you show that part more in depth? Also what would arccos(n) and arcsin(n) go to as n goes to infinite?
How Do I solve this limit? (x arctan (sqrt (x)) - (π x)/2 as x ... 20 Nov 2020 · Action Movies & Series; Animated Movies & Series; Comedy Movies & Series; Crime, Mystery, & Thriller Movies & Series
Can someone explain to me why the limit as x approaches infinity … You are looking at theta = arctan(x). This is the same as saying x = tan theta = sin theta / cos theta, and clearly when theta goes to pi/2 this x goes to infinity. Inverting that shows that your limit corresponds to pi/2.
How to Find the Sum of Arctan Series? - Physics Forums 24 Jun 2005 · Note that ArcTan and ArcSin are 0 at 0 where the other 2 are >0. Thus intutitively one would suspect taking an infinite sum of a function closer and closer to x=0 for functions which are >0 would not converge whereas if the functions are 0 at x=0, the sum I …
Is Sin(arctan(infinity))=1? : r/trigonometry - Reddit 6 Nov 2019 · If the arctan of infinity is equal to pi/2 which in turn is equal to 90°, sin(90°)=1. Archived post. ...
Limit of Arctanx: Why Does \frac{\pi}{2} Make Sense? - Physics … 27 Mar 2009 · As the angle value approaches pi/2, the corresponding tangent value approaches infinity. Since the mapping from angles to tangent values is bijective, it follows that we can define an inverse mapping (i.e, the arctan-mapping), having in particular, the property that as the tangent value approaches infinity, the angle value approaches pi/2.
Calculate limit as n approaches infinity of a complicated ... - Reddit 7 Jun 2019 · n * arctan(n) - (-n) * arctan(-n) You didn't multiply the second term by the derivative of -n, i.e -1. This aside: before you can apply L'Hopital's rule you need to show the numerator diverges to infinity. I'm not sure if there's a easy way to show this, it might be just as easy to actually calculate the integral, use integration by parts.