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Can someone explain to me why the limit as x approaches infinity of … You are looking at theta = arctan(x). This is the same as saying x = tan theta = sin theta / cos theta, and clearly when theta goes to pi/2 this x goes to infinity. Inverting that shows that your limit corresponds to pi/2.
Does the series arctan n converge? - Physics Forums 1 Mar 2011 · [tex]\sum^{infinity}_{n=1} arctan (n)[/tex] I thought about using the integral test, but it's not decreasing. Any hints? Could I somehow use proof by induction to show that its an increasing function?
Why is 1/0 undefined but arctan(1/0) = arctan(∞)? - Reddit 18 Dec 2023 · arctan(1/0) arctan(∞) answer is pi/2 however, we all know that 1/0 is undefined. does this have to do with limits where its just saying that since 1/0 approaches infinity, the angle approaches pi/2? how do i know when to use 1/0 as undefined or as ∞?
Taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) at infinity - Physics Forums 24 Jul 2023 · I have to write taylor expansion of f(x)=arctan(x) around at x=+∞. My first idea was to set z=1/x and in this case z→0 Thus I can expand f(z)= arctan(1/z) near 0 so I obtain 1/z-1/3(z^3) Then I try to reverse the substitution but this is incorrect .I discovered after that...
Calculate limit as n approaches infinity of a complicated ... - Reddit 7 Jun 2019 · n * arctan(n) - (-n) * arctan(-n) You didn't multiply the second term by the derivative of -n, i.e -1. This aside: before you can apply L'Hopital's rule you need to show the numerator diverges to infinity. I'm not sure if there's a easy way to show this, it might be just as easy to actually calculate the integral, use integration by parts.
Is arctan(1/x^2) defined at x=0? : r/learnmath - Reddit 4 Aug 2023 · However, we can take the limit of the function as x goes to 0. Then, 1/x 2 goes to infinity. That means that we are taking the limit of arctan(x) as x goes to infinity, which is pi/2. There is a hole in the graph of arctan(1/x 2) at x=0. We can make …
How to Find the Sum of Arctan Series? - Physics Forums 24 Jun 2005 · Note that ArcTan and ArcSin are 0 at 0 where the other 2 are >0. Thus intutitively one would suspect taking an infinite sum of a function closer and closer to x=0 for functions which are >0 would not converge whereas if the functions are 0 at x=0, the sum I suspect could converge.
Why arctan(n) goes to pi/2 as n goes infinite? - Physics Forums 12 Dec 2011 · I posted the picture of this question I am just wondering. Why does arctan(n) as n → ∞ go to ∏/2? How would you show that part more in depth? Also what would arccos(n) and arcsin(n) go to as n goes to infinite?
Limit of Arctanx: Why Does \frac{\pi}{2} Make Sense? - Physics … 27 Mar 2009 · As the angle value approaches pi/2, the corresponding tangent value approaches infinity. Since the mapping from angles to tangent values is bijective, it follows that we can define an inverse mapping (i.e, the arctan-mapping), having in particular, the property that as the tangent value approaches infinity, the angle value approaches pi/2.
What would Infinity minus Infinity be? : r/askmath - Reddit 20 Apr 2024 · So one way you could try to determine what "infinity minus infinity" should be is to take two functions f(x) and g(x), both of which go to infinity (as x goes to infinity) and consider what happens to f(x) - g(x) as x goes to infinity. But then you soon realize that for different functions f and g, you can get wildly different results.